Charles' /Charles's (pronunciation) (2025)

S

sorry2spam

Member

India

Hindi, English(UK)

  • Apr 8, 2010
  • #1

Hello,

Recently I have been in a lot of confusion as to which one of these is correct:
1) I borrowed Charles' pencil.
2) I borrowed Charles's pencil.

I feel only sentence 2 is correct. Please let me know if my understanding is correct or not.

Besides this, I am also wondering how we would pronounce "Charles's". I think it would be pronounced as "Charlses", is that correct? Similarly, "Prince's" should be pronounced as "Princes" in this case which would be a little confusing as it would be similar to "Princess". Please let me which pronunciations would be correct.

Thank you.

  • Brioche

    Senior Member

    Adelaide

    Australia English

    • Apr 8, 2010
    • #2

    There have been several threads on this topic.

    Both 1 and 2 are used.

    In RP, Charles is pronounced /tʃɑːlz/, and Charles's = /ˈtʃɑːlzɪz/

    Prince's / Princes is pronounced /'prɪnsɪz/
    Princess is /prɪnˈses/
    so the two words are quite different.

    Last edited:

    S

    sorry2spam

    Member

    India

    Hindi, English(UK)

    • Apr 8, 2010
    • #3

    Brioche said:

    There have been several threads on this topic.

    Both 1 and 2 are used.

    In RP, Charles is pronounced /tʃɑːlz/, and Charles's = /ˈtʃɑːlzɪz/

    Prince's / Princes is pronounced /'prɪnsɪz/
    Princess is /prɪnˈses/
    so the two words are quite different.

    Thanks for the reply, it does clear the doubts about the pronunciations. And I made this thread because I couldn't find anything about it when I searched it. :/

    I am still waiting for other opinions on sentence 1 and 2, maybe one of them might be more correct (if not only correct).

    entangledbank

    Senior Member

    London

    English - South-East England

    • Apr 8, 2010
    • #4

    Both are very common. Some people prefer to write Charles', others Charles's. I think most people pronounce the extra syllable, even if they don't write it.

    J

    jpyvr

    Senior Member

    Vancouver, BC, Canada

    English - Canadian

    • Apr 8, 2010
    • #5

    I'll leave it to the experts to tell you if one or the other is more correct.

    But your questions made me realize something interesting about my own usage of the possessive form for words ending in the letter "s". I always write them with the terminal "s" followed by an apostrophe, but with out a second "s". However, in speaking, I always pronounce both of them. Inconsistent, I know, but that's how I do it.

    A

    Adge

    Senior Member

    Vitoria-Gasteiz, Spain

    USA- English (Southern)

    • Apr 8, 2010
    • #6

    I remember learning as a child that the only time a name ending in 's' should not take a second 's' is if it were the name of a famous historical person, i.e. Jesus' not Jesus's, Socrates' not Socrates's. Additionally, my spell check just protested Jesus's, so it appears that other people shared my teacher's opinions. For all other names, the second 's' should be included.

    Loob

    Senior Member

    English UK

    • Apr 8, 2010
    • #7

    If you read the sticky at the top of English Only, you'll see that panjandrum lists (click) the most frequently raised topics in this forum, and that this is one of them.

    By following his link, you'll find a number of previous threadsCharles' /Charles's (pronunciation) (4)

    panjandrum

    Senior Member

    Belfast, Ireland

    English-Ireland (top end)

    • Apr 8, 2010
    • #8

    Most advice is to write it the way you pronounce it.
    Few would claim to pronounce three "s" sounds for the possessive of Jesus or Moses, so few would care to write Jesus's or Moses's.
    It's all common sense really

    For more, please see Loob's link and in particular:
    Possessive - Charles' Or Charles's?
    Possessive - proper names ending in Z or S

    [Closure note deleted. DonnyB - moderator]

    Last edited by a moderator:

    R

    Ruzanna

    Banned

    Russian

    • Aug 29, 2019
    • #9

    [This question and the subsequent posts have been added to a previous thread on the same topic. Please read down from the top. DonnyB - moderator]
    Hi
    As I searched online, both ways are correct when a proper noun ends in 's':
    Charles' car
    Charles's car
    And that it is a matter of personal preference. I wonder how they are pronounced and if there is any difference.
    I suppose the second one is [ Cha:lziz]. What about the first one?

    Last edited by a moderator:

    entangledbank

    Senior Member

    London

    English - South-East England

    • Aug 29, 2019
    • #10

    Yes, you can pronounce it either with or without the extra syllable. I personally think that if you say it as Charles you should write Charles', while if you add an extra syllable you should write it as Charles's - but not everyone follows this.

    R

    Ruzanna

    Banned

    Russian

    • Aug 29, 2019
    • #11

    So you can do without 's and it still implies it.
    Charles' car [cha:lz]
    Charles's [cha:lziz].

    One local book I consulted said:
    James' [djeimziz]
    It had this transcription and not [djeimz]

    Last edited:

    heypresto

    Senior Member

    South East England

    English - England

    • Aug 29, 2019
    • #12

    I would pronounce them 'Charlsiz' and 'Jamesiz' regardless of how they are spelt.

    (And I would spell them both with the apostrophe.)

    Uncle Jack

    Senior Member

    Cumbria, UK

    British English

    • Aug 29, 2019
    • #13

    heypresto said:

    I would pronounce them 'Charlsiz' and 'Jamesiz' regardless of how they are spelt.

    Charles' /Charles's (pronunciation) (9)

    I might make exceptions. If there is a "James' Street", for example, I would almost certainly pronounce it as "James", without the "iz" ending, unless I knew locals pronounced it differently. However I pronounce both St James's Park (London) and St James' Park (Newcastle) as "Jamesiz". The pronunciation of the royal park in London is universal, I think, but there are people who pronounce Newcastle United's football ground as "James" and this, apparently, is how the club say it should be pronounced.

    I almost always use just an apostrophe in writing, not adding a second letter "s".

    heypresto

    Senior Member

    South East England

    English - England

    • Aug 29, 2019
    • #14

    Charles' /Charles's (pronunciation) (11) I would always pronounce place names and the like as they are 'correctly' or locally pronounced (if I know them), but in contexts like the OP sentence, it would always be with the extra 'siz' syllable.

    JulianStuart

    Senior Member

    Sonoma County CA

    English (UK then US)

    • Aug 29, 2019
    • #15

    I don't afford (singular) words ending in s any special privileges, adding and pronouncing the 's for each one. I don't have a problem saying Jezusiz or Mozesiz for Jesus's and Moses's but accept that many will object to that and they will omit the s in writing and pronunciation.

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